Re: What's Your Favorite U.S. Supreme Court decision?
Reply #25 –
As an aside, the provision on sex might not even have made it in there if a racist hadn't been concerned that white women might have fewer rights than black men and women.
The only speculation I've read about that is that it was proposed as a so-called poison pill - an amendment designed to make the law less likely to be enacted... (Not an unusual legislative tactic!)
I reject the contention of obscurity in language usage that makes personal interpretation the standard: that's no standard at all. And were it so, communication would be impossible. Translation from one language to another is more likely to be idiosyncratic. But among native speakers the Humpty Dumpty/Alice exchange in Through the Looking Glass doesn't seem profound but only silly.
That mores have changed in the 50-some-odd years since the law's passage, there's little doubt. That the usage originally encompassed and logically contains our modern peccadillos seems more than far-fetched: It seems perverse...
(It's that very perversity that makes the exchange so entertaining!)
Still, ersi is correct about the historical causes that bring us to this point.
Let's back up a bit:
As Gorsuch writes, what matters is that the discriminators would not make this decision but for sex. That's what's in the text of the law. There's a pretense by Alito and Thomas that Gorsuch changed the meaning of sex, which he clearly did not, and that you can discriminate on gender without targeting sex, which doesn't make a lick of sense. (emphasis added)
But as ersi points out,
The funny thing is of course that pedophilia and what not are also sexual orientations (how would you argue that they are not?), so does it really serve a sensible purpose to explicitly normalise any and all sexual orientations?
Further:
ersi said on 2022-01-06, 00:56:29: "As to 'interpreting' that Oakdale has an issue with, it so happens that whenever you read a text, you are interpreting it. Inevitably. It is impossible to not interpret."
It's quite literally the job of the courts to interpret the law. That's what they're there for. Otherwise they'd serve no purpose.
In the American system the purpose of the higher courts is to resolve conflicts and controversies. As Gorsuch did with "but for sex" many attempt to do with "interpret"... ersi correctly shows that Gorsuch abrogates the Absurdity Doctrine.
In other words, Humpty Dumpty is headed for a great fall! And all the king's horses and all the king's men will be unable to put him back together again...
There's a pretense by Alito and Thomas that Gorsuch changed the meaning of sex, which he clearly did not, and that you can discriminate on gender without targeting sex, which doesn't make a lick of sense.
You mean you reject their interpretation? Pray tell: What privileges your interpretation? Word games can only get you so far...
And "gender" is, the way you use it, a quite modern term.. Time was, it was but a grammatical category...
When the statute in question uses language easily understood on the basis of documented common usage and supported by contemporaneous reference works, what justifies the "new" interpretation?
What you call a "pretense" is merely an unpretentious reading of original text, eschewing flights of fancy.
It's telling that you'd rehash your example of the law against kidnapping from the 1600s to the 1900s:
How do you justify making the means of transport a "but-for" element of the crime? (Remind me, please...)