Re: Maps-Maps-Maps! ?
Reply #200 –
The indigenous population of California under Spanish rule dropped from 300,000 prior to 1769, to 250,000 in 1834. After Mexico won its independence from Spain, and after the secularization of the coastal missions by the Mexican government in 1834, the indigenous population suffered a much more drastic decrease in population.* The period immediately following the U.S. conquest of California has been characterized by numerous sources as a genocide. Under US sovereignty, after 1848, the Indian population plunged from perhaps 150,000 to 30,000 in 1870 and reached its nadir of 16,000 in 1900.
Lies, damned lies, and statistics!
Are those "numerous sources" the same as the main-stream media?
the numbers of killings of California Indians between 1846 and 1873 and estimated that during this period at least 9,400 to 16,000 California Indians were killed by non-Indians
So: 300,000 to 30,000 and eventually 16,000 by 1900… But 300,000 minus 19,000 still equals 284,000… What's wrong here? (Just Wacky Wiki… I'm used to it.) How did the 300,000 get to 150,000 — without genocide? And how is it still mentioned without claims of genocide?
Might these U.S. numbers be census numbers, where respondents self-identify? Maybe not so many people wanted to be "Indian"…having been given American citizenship?
But I'm pretty sure you'll see that as cultural genocide!
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* Note, please, that numbers are "withheld" from this sentence… One wonders why? The Spanish and Mexicans couldn't count? No. They don't count, when it comes to perfidy… European privilege seems to be everywhere lately. But mostly in the U.S. Aren't you ashamed of being "white" yet? Trust me: The time will come when almost everybody will… Obama will hide his face!
(Oops! Did I refer to another thread? )